Board Thread:What If?/@comment-5674726-20140630220202/@comment-5102537-20140721093317

As far as I know, divorce was allowed for royals in case of infertility since it was too important and essential to produce an heir to the throne. Maybe it depended on the era. Things changed between the fifth and the 16th century of the middle ages.

I would say that in the Merlinverse, Uther had every right to divorce Igraine but I doubt that he would have done it. ReganX, your idea of having a child with another woman and pretending it to be Igraine's child would be most likely to me. And if so, I wonder if this would have even been a legitimite way of having an heir in this story. We will never know.

But following the common rules of medieval times, I would say that Uther would have found a way to stay married to Igraine and secretly produce an heir with another woman. That is, if Igraine would agree. And if this all woudn't work I think there was a 50 - 50 chance for either divorcing her or for simply appointing the son of another noble family to be his heir.

I doubt that he would have claimed Morgana, given the consequences for everyone involved in this affair of adultery.